I wouldn't be so certain as ((1+(n+1)/(n^2))^(n^2)) goes towards infinity and 0^n is zero, and with zero * infinity you always have to do more investigation
0^n=0=cste for any n>0. Even if series tends to infinity, multiplied by 0 it will be 0. Of course, it does not apply if you multiply this by something, which tends to zero. In that case you should make a full study.
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